Perhaps you just like throwing quarters at the moon.
Not at all. But my reasons for not doing what Ruhlen is doing are not scientific reasons: they're common sense reasons. I'd like a scientific reason to back this up.
The rest of us, on the other hand, realize something very important: a quarter weighs 5.67 grams, a typical human's ulnar collateral ligament will break somewhere around 80 N*m, and the escape velocity of earth is 11.2 km/s.
Strawman. And that's exactly the problem: in historical linguistics, we don't have any of those accurate measurements. We don't know how quickly languages change, we don't know what words are preserved and which are lost, we don't know how old language is, we have any way to test our predictions, and so forth.
With the statistical entropy metrics I've been referencing throughout this thread.
To be fair,
hinting at. I asked for a reference. The closest you gave was "any historical linguistics textbook". I teach with one. I've read a handful. They certainly cover this in general terms, but they don't address the technical details at a scientific level, just descriptive. Maybe I missed it, not looking for this when I read the books, so feel free to point me in the right direction if so.
Ruhlen is working with an arbitrarily large number. Alternately, you can use a purely stochastic model like the one jkpate linked to earlier for long reach but less specificity, but Ruhlen is most certainly not doing the legwork necessary for that either.
Here I'll certainly agree-- Ruhlen is taking every liberty possible and then making some arbitrary guesses. That's a problem. But aside from throwing it out just for that, I am genuinely wondering what can be shown scientifically (unlike his methodology) to demonstrate that he's wrong to even attempt such a task. So far I haven't seen that argument.
As for jkpate's suggestion, it's interesting, but I specifically ignored that because it can't be the optimal methodology, in theory. So any weaknesses are irrelevant if there may be a better approach.
That's not how phonological change happens, not in the slightest. Exponential decay is precisely the wrong metaphor. It's all chain shifts, all the way down. You keep wanting to look at this in terms of x% change per y years, but that's a fundamental misunderstanding of the data and the methodology.
My comment was directed at freknu in terms of lexical statistics, how many words are reconstructed for PIE. I wasn't referring to phonological changes, at least not directly. And this also appears to be the explanation given by Ringe in the video I linked to earlier. Borrowing (and other kinds of lexical change) are responsible for the time-depth barrier, not (just) grammatical/phonological change.
Some of the math depends on how much contextual phonology you're willing to bake into your model, but nothing from structuralism is going to get you much past 2-3 postulated intermediate states.
Ok, and with these two comments I think we're getting somewhere: you're talking
specifically about phonology, and the argument is within that context, rather than the big picture.
Extending that and rephrasing it to make sure I know what you mean...
As we go back in time and layer sound changes, they become undecidable and opaque from our perspective. Sounds change from A to B then back to A, so that from a flat (synchronic) perspective, the diachrony is flat as well, hiding all of the important changes from us. By having a small (say <50) inventory of phonemes in an average language, and by having many changes over time, we necessarily run into such problems. The result is that, much like "flattening" an image in Photoshop, we can't reconstruct the layers without all of that missing information. We're left with a narrow view.
That's an interesting perspective, and likely one that is easier to defend (statistically) than some others. The trouble is that we still don't have all of the necessary data to know how quickly sound changes occur and so forth. So we don't have a baseline or a control, and we can't really know for sure how far back we can look.
Further, there's the interesting point made (in the video, for example) that some words seem to actually look like what they used to be in PIE, at least in some cases. Selecting arbitrary examples (as in the video) isn't too convincing, but the possibility is intriguing. I believe it was freknu who posted some evidence about similarities in agreement inflections in IE and Uralic, and maybe that's the sort of place we'd find evidence.
In the end, we all agree Ruhlen is looking too far back. I just want to know the best way to show that
