Author Topic: The language of old Europe  (Read 309503 times)

Offline Daniel

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #120 on: February 11, 2014, 07:14:00 AM »
In terms of scope, are those major claims (as in this thread) or are they making additional points about tendencies more subtle than other forces like arbitrariness of form?
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Offline dublin

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #121 on: February 12, 2014, 05:24:45 AM »
When I said that you really don't understand language, because to understand language you need to start looking at it, listening to it and thinking, you replied that what i said was absurd. This just shows that not only you don't understand what language is and how it works but you don't understand how understanding works. In schools, there are two types of kids: those who are good at memorizing things and repeating them, and those who are good at figuring things out. I bet you were the first kind of guy. They usually go to study humanities, where there is a lot of memorizing and very little thinking.

You are still asking the same questions even though I have answered them many times.  Either you don't understand English language, you refuse to understand or you didn't even bothered reading most of what i wrote, because you have decided at the start that it was all rubbish, just because it is not what you believe in. Let me answer these questions again, and I hope that you will read and understand the answers this time.

1. I never said that "N" is the only sound that carries the meaning of a boundary. I said that sound "N" carries the meaning of a boundary. There could equally be other sounds that carry the same meaning, like "Z" for instance. Spoken language is associated with situations, context. So you can have different sounds having the same meaning in different contexts.

2. When I made my prediction, I said this: "I predict that most English words containing sound "N" will be linked in meaning to boundary. I have already analysed quite a few of them and all of them are related to boundary. And I am planning to analyse all of them. ". So I fully expect that there will be words that contain "N" in English language which are not related to boundary.

3. Group languages are invented by families. Families expand to clans, tribes, nations, races and propagate the language. They also propagate genes. This is why genes and languages are linked.
Different families can use different logic to link context to sound. Some of them will use "N" to represent boundary, some will use "Z" and some will use "K" of what ever other sound they though was logically linked to the concept of a boundary in the environment they lived when they developed the language. These families merged, languages merged. Not all words in English come from the same "family" language.

4. Words change phonetically through time. This is due to the the fact that what we say is dependent on what we hear and our ability to reproduce it. 

5. The meaning of words changes through time. Gay used to mean gentle. Words which are most critical for making sense and coordinating group actions stay the same the longest. The words which are not so critical can change in meaning. When people invented traffic light language, red meant stop, green meant go, yellow meant press on the break, prepare to stop, red light is coming. Stop and go are critical and still mean the same. Yellow now has many meanings, of which most common is press on the gas, speed up, red light is coming.

6. Words and sentences are linked to situations, context. This is how people learn language. And this is why you can not analyze the spoken language in isolation. You always need to link it to the context of which it is an integral part.

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What possible reason would two terms that are opposites NOT both be related to boundaries?
Enter = go in via a boundary
Exit = go out via a boundary

There could be many reasons. First reason could be that two words came from two different family languages, and became associated with each other in third.

Example: Serbian words "Kraj" (pronounced kray) and "Konac" (pronounced konats) both mean end. One has "N" sound in it the other doesn't. 

Second reason could be that words changed phonetically through time so they could have lost some of it's sounds.

Example: In Serbian words "Udji" - come in and "Izadji" (go out). Word "Udji" used to be, and still is in some dialects "Unidji". Unidji = u + n + idi = in + boundary + you go. It is easier to say "udji" and the meaning is still preserved udji = u  + di = in + go

Third reason could be that words associated with the meaning of moving in and out are dependent on the situation and the position of the speaker. When you are in you are within the boundary. When you are out, there is no boundary any more as boundary is linked to what it defines.



Inside you are within the boundary. Outside it is the open space. This is consistent across a lot of European languages, which obviously have the same meaning of the sound "N". :

English:

in; Entrance; Inside
out; Exit; Outside

Serbian

Un (in), Unutra (Inside); Ulaz from Unilaz (entrance); Udji from Unidji (come in)
Na (on, out); Napolju (out, literally on the field); Izlaz (exit), Izadji (go out).

German

in; innen; Eingang, Eintritt

aus; außerhalb; Ausfahrt, Ausgang

Spanish

en; dentro; entrada

fuera; afuera; salida

But in Czech we see that the situation, the context associated with these terms is different.

Czech

v; uvnitř; vstup
ven; venku; mimo, výjezd

Here we can see that in is represented with sound "V" instead of "U" like in Serbian. In boundary is represented with "VN" the equivalent of "UN" which we can see from the word "uvnitř" meaning inside. uvnitř = U + VN + iti = in + inside boundary + go. But out is "ven" which basically means not inside. ven = vn + e + n = in + is + not. Words for entrance and exit are newer and derived from specific context of entering a house and leaving the house. "vstup"  meaning entrance, comes from vustup = v(u) + stup = in + step = step in, step over the door step. "výjezd" meaning exit, comes from vi + jezd = out + ride, go.

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Seriously... how can your theory possible make predictions?

Like that. The predictions i made are still valid.

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Is it acceptable if I just note that every word spelled with an P is related to pineapples? How would you actually argue against that?

Language is linked to context. But you don't know that.



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Show me some data, a graph, and a statistical test.

I asked you this questions: "What do you think? Coincidences, Statistical noise, or are we approaching statistical impossibility of this all being coincidence? At what percentage of words with N sound, for which i can prove that they are linked to boundary, will you accept that there is an established correlation between sound N and meaning of boundary? "

I asked you to think about it, and tell me from your point of view when is the frequency of coincidences too high to be a coincidence. But you didn't understand what I said. Again. Do you understand my question now and can you give me the straight answer. 10% or 90%? Instead you say this:

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As far as I know, no, certainly not. You're just making arbitrary observations that are neither falsifiable (or validated) or consistent by any obvious methodology.

The key here is "As far as you know". You don't know everything. Use the methodology you preach about and tell me what percentage of hits removes the possibility of coincidence and confirms deliberate action.

You were asking me for a null hypothesis. This is it: I presume that all the "N" words that I found so far linked to the meaning of boundary in English are all coincidences. I believe that if I analyze all of the "N" words in English, and large majority of them is linked to the meaning of boundary then i have proven that this is not a coincidence. To add to that If I find the same correlation in related European languages, then we certainly have a pattern which is deliberate rather then coincidental.

You can read about null hypothesis here. You will see that how you prove it or disprove it is hotly debated.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Null_hypothesis



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Explain to me why a word is "related to boundary".

This again is self evident to someone who uses their eyes, ears and brain and who understands what language is. Language exists as part of a context describing information pattern or matrix. This is why "poetry" of the language is so important for it's understanding. Words relate to boundary if they are found in the same context with the meaning of boundary.

Like these words:

English - Knife
Serbian  - nož
Polish - nož
Irish - scian

English, Irish, Slavic languages have "N" in words that represent something with which you create new boundaries, but cutting something in half. Most other western European languages have other roots for knife.


quintuplets

Comes from a number, which is a late development abstract word. Does not need to be related to boundary as people at that time had language to link terms with meaning.  Also as I said I don't expect all "N" words to be linked to a boundary. But you could argue that five is the maximum number of fingers on one hand, so the boundary of what you can count on one hand.

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From Proto-Italic, from Proto-Indo-European *pénkʷe (cf. the Italic *kʷ-kʷ, from *p-kʷ shift, also found in words like coquō; compare proto-Celtic *kʷinkʷe). Cognates include Sanskrit पञ्चन् (páñcan), Ancient Greek πέντε (pente), Old Armenian հինգ (hing) and Old English fīf (English five).

fascinate

From nos, to carry on your self, on your boundary

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From fascinum (“a phallus-shaped amulet worn around the neck; witchcraft”). Of unknown origin; compare Ancient Greek βάσκανος (baskanos, “sorcerer”), possibly from the same European substratum.


sing

"glas" means voice, "glasno" means loud, "na glas" means out loud in Serbian and other Slavic languages.

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From Proto-Balto-Slavic *galsas, from Proto-Indo-European *golHsos, from *gels- (“to call”). Cognate to Lithuanian gãlsas (“echo”), Latin gallus (“cock”) and possibly to Proto-Germanic *kalzōną (Old Norse kalla (“to call”)).


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From Middle English singen, from Old English singan 'to sing, recite', from Proto-Germanic *singwaną (compare West Frisian sjonge, Low German singen, Dutch zingen, German singen, Danish synge, Swedish sjunga), from Proto-Indo-European *sengʷh- (compare Middle Welsh deongl (“to explain”), Ancient Greek ὁμφή (omphḗ, “voice, oracle”), Prakrit saṃghai 'to say, teach').

kaži - say from ga + si = that + say

It could be a late local development meaning speak out loud. si + na + gl

lift was originally action of moving something up. No boundary in context.
childhood originally meant a state, a logical group of children. No boundary in context.

edge - originally mean sharp. Serbian word "oštar" means sharp, "oštrica" means knife's edge. Not a boundary related even though today it means boundary of a knife.

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Middle English egge, from Old English ecg, from Proto-Germanic *agjō (compare Dutch egge, German Ecke, Swedish egg), from Proto-Indo-European *h₂eḱ- (“sharp”) (compare Welsh hogi (“to sharpen, hone”), Latin aciēs (“sharp”), acus (“needle”), Latvian ašs, ass (“sharp”), Ancient Greek ἀκίς (akis, “needle”), ἀκμή (akmē, “point”), and Persian آس (ās, “grinding stone”)).

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Explain why the first set of words is related to "boundary" and not the second set! Are you relying only on your assumption that N relates to boundaries? Or can you tell from these words?

Satisfied?

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You need to learn something about statistics. You need to consider a percentage of words with N, not a number.

I know a lot about statistics. You need to determine the number of words with N to get their percentage. But there are two percentages here: percentage of N words related to boundary and percentage of N words in the language. We need to determine both and I am going to do it. You can help me if you want and do something constructive for a change.

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But more importantly, you need to compare it to the likelihood that the observed correlation is due to chance. So you need to determine how unlikely it would be. One method is to compare it to a sample of words that do not contain N and show that for some reason the words with N are much more likely to relate to boundaries.

As I said already, this is what I am trying to establish. Do you want to help?

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I'm willing to consider your idea as potentially useful and correct, but you won't get anywhere by trying to convince me that I'm not listening.

You are maybe listening but you have problems understanding. If you ask me a question, and i answer, and then you ask me the same question again ignoring my answer, then i can at best conclude that you are not listening. But I am beginning to believe that you are incapable of understanding.

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Where's your abstract? Hasn't it been a week? Why are you still rambling?

As i thought, you are not listening, or thinking or reading what i write. Did you see this in one of my posts?

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jkpate

Apologies for not submitting my summary yet. While i was writing I realized that I need to explain the core terms and concepts on which the theory is based. So it might take me a few days more to finish it.


Do you understand what it means? And drop that attitude. I am not one of your students. Thank god.

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Additionally, you may want to look into some assumptions you're making. Language may not be "for" anything-- it's an ability in the human mind. We do use it in communication, but you make the assumption that it is necessarily defined by that. This is a HUGE debate in the field. It may or may not be right. But arrogantly and ignorantly pursuing something without understanding your own assumptions is not going to result in good science. Sorry, but there's learning required if you want to make claims that others will listen to.

This just shows that you do not understand what language is. Language is an algorithm used for decoding message from data. Period. It can be used for encoding data as well but it doesn't have to be. We can invent a language to decode information which might not be encoded using the same algorithm. For instance language of bird flight used for divination. So our brain invents languages all the time. Some of them become group languages (what you call language) and some stay individual languages. Like for me bunch of flowers in back pocket of trousers  could mean cool, but for everyone else it could mean stupid. You don't understand what language is, and neither do people who argue about whether it is for something or if it is ability. Maybe you should read and learn more about communication theory.


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I mentioned far above that language is "an arbitrary pairing of form and meaning".

And this just shows how little you understand what language is. It is not arbitrary because it is dependent on context. Do you know how kids learn to speak? Do you know what would happen to kids if you constantly changed the words used in the same context? Do you think they would ever learn how to speak. You can use arbitrary sound to create sound part of the context. But once it becomes part of the context, if you want to have a useful language, it stays stuck inside the context.


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Would you prefer that everyone who has an opinion be treated as correct? Or are you a special exception?

Again you didn't understand the language. I was making a joke, but you did not get it.

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For a hypothesis to be useful, we must be able to IN THEORY prove it wrong, if that data presented itself.

As I said already, I gave you null hypothesis.


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Take the theory of gravity: it's falsifiable because we might prove it wrong if we find observe that all objects float.

This is logically wrong. If objects float, that does not mean that there is or there isn't gravity, or that gravity has anything to do with objects floating.

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In the end, you are just making things up (also known as hypothesizing) without creating any way of testing whether those things are reliable (also known as testing or attempted falsification).

Get all the words in English, separate the N words, separate the boundary N words, separate the boundary non N words. Compare percentages. Also look at word clusters related to boundary context. Do they follow the same N pattern or not. Find other sound roots which might represent boundary. Repeat the same process.

I am doing all this, you are saying no, you are not doing it scientifically, while deliberately ignoring any evidence presented to you as worthless and refusing to specify what would be positive evidence. You could, if you wanted to be scientific, to prove me wrong, prove the null hypothesis. But you will not do it, because you know that I could be right. You say I should:

1. Come up with a theory. (Done and presented. There is a detectable correlation between sounds and meaning)
2. That theory must have a potential weakness, for a certain kind of hypothetical data. (There is more words which don't conform to the above then there are words which conform)
3. See if that data actually exists. (I am actively looking for the data that supports my theory. If I find some data that does not i will let you know. And you can let me know if you find some as well.)
YES: The theory is falsified.
NO: The theory is (so far) reliable and makes predictions.

Please explain your problem with my approach to all this and what is not Scientific that I am doing.
« Last Edit: February 12, 2014, 05:42:53 AM by dublin »
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Offline MalFet

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #122 on: February 12, 2014, 06:46:31 AM »
Please explain your problem with my approach to all this and what is not Scientific that I am doing.

If you offered a testable null hypothesis, I seem to have missed it.

Offline dublin

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #123 on: February 12, 2014, 07:19:13 AM »
MalFet

Here we go again. I will spell it this time:

The theory: There is a detectable correlation between sounds and meaning

Null hypothesis: All the "N" words that are related to boundary in English are all coincidences and there is no correlation between sound and meaning. The distribution of sounds in boundary related words is random

Null hypothesis proof:

Get all the words in English, separate the N words, separate the boundary related N words.
Get all non N words from English language, separate the boundary related non N words from the other non N words.
Compare percentages.

If percentage of N words related to boundary is less than the threshold percentage (?), we have random distribution and no correlation between sound and meaning. 

If percentage of N words related to boundary is significantly more than the threshold percentage (?) go to stage two.

If percentage of non N words related to boundary is close to or bigger than the percentage of N words related to boundary we go to stage three.

Check if there is any other common sound in non N words related to boundary. Repeat the above steps.

You repeat this until you prove that none of the sounds that is found in clusters of words related to boundary has the majority in its group.

If you prove this the null hypothesis is validated and the theory is invalidated. If you can't prove this, if any of the perceived boundary carrying sounds appears to be in more words than you would expect if the distribution was random, then the theory is proven.

Or even simpler, get all the words related to boundary, group them by common sound, get percentage for each group with common sound. Compare with threshold percentage. If distribution is uniform, we have randomness. If we have peaks, it is deliberate. Each peak represents one sound which is strongly related to meaning of boundary.

The threshold percentage calculation:

number of all words related to boundary / number of letters = random distribution

What delta would you consider to be the proof that distribution is not random? If this is not testable what is?
« Last Edit: February 12, 2014, 07:26:58 AM by dublin »
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Offline jkpate

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #124 on: February 12, 2014, 03:37:32 PM »
The theory: There is a detectable correlation between sounds and meaning

A correlation between sounds and meaning is the very definition of (spoken) language. This can't be what you mean. What (I think) you mean is that there is a correlation between particular sounds and particular meanings that cannot be attributed to language history.


Null hypothesis: All the "N" words that are related to boundary in English are all coincidences and there is no correlation between sound and meaning. The distribution of sounds in boundary related words is random

Null hypothesis proof:

Get all the words in English, separate the N words, separate the boundary related N words.
Get all non N words from English language, separate the boundary related non N words from the other non N words.
Compare percentages.

How do you distinguish "boundary related" words from non-boundary related words in a way that is clear and replicatable? How are you going to control for effects of language history if you use only one language?

If percentage of N words related to boundary is less than the threshold percentage (?), we have random distribution and no correlation between sound and meaning. 

If percentage of N words related to boundary is significantly more than the threshold percentage (?) go to stage two.

If percentage of non N words related to boundary is close to or bigger than the percentage of N words related to boundary we go to stage three.

Actually, you would want to do something more like a chi-squared test for independence, and see if the probability that a word is "boundary related" and has an "N" in it is higher than the probability of being boundary related times the probability of having an N in it.

Check if there is any other common sound in non N words related to boundary. Repeat the above steps.

This is called data-mining, and would be fine for generating hypotheses on an exploratory basis. To test these hypotheses, however, you'd need to gather a new dataset (especially since the theoretical motivation is so weak!).

Also, since you haven't actually done these tests, why do you expect people to believe you?
« Last Edit: February 12, 2014, 03:39:12 PM by jkpate »
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Offline Daniel

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #125 on: February 12, 2014, 06:00:45 PM »
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In schools, there are two types of kids: those who are good at memorizing things and repeating them, and those who are good at figuring things out. I bet you were the first kind of guy. They usually go to study humanities, where there is a lot of memorizing and very little thinking.
Your ad hominem argumentation style is getting old. Really, stop it.
But to address your point here: that may be the single least insightful thing anyone has ever said about me. I tend to dislike the humanities and lean toward serious science (even though they call Linguistics a "social science"-- but I like psychology as well, so that may be fine). I'm analytical, hate memorizing, and always question everything.
In fact, I'm questioning you right now. The problem is that your argument doesn't make sense. I promise you (so stop claiming otherwise) I have no particular attachment to the status quo. But you have given me absolutely no reason to believe anything you're saying. You may as well be making up some other completely wrong theory. If you'd like my reaction to change, then either: 1) come up with a coherent way to explain it, or 2) move on to a new theory that is coherent. Up to you.

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You are still asking the same questions even though I have answered them many times. 
1. I asked for a short abstract. (We all did.) You haven't written it. Please do. If you don't, we will assume you can't coherently summarize anything meaningful from your claims. I can't at the moment either.
2. You might be right. I'm trying to give you a chance to defend your ideas, but if you have reached the point of not being able to further clarify/support them, maybe it's time to give up.

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Either you don't understand English language, you refuse to understand or you didn't even bothered reading most of what i wrote, because you have decided at the start that it was all rubbish, just because it is not what you believe in.
No, neither of those. Your arguments are unconvincing.
Again, I've explained over and over: you have unconvincing arguments then you act hurt that we don't believe you and claim we're stuck in the past. That could apply to ANY argument, right or wrong. For you to show us that you're right, you'll need to make a convincing argument, not talk about how ignorant and closed-minded we are. (We're not.)

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1. I never said that "N" is the only sound that carries the meaning of a boundary. I said that sound "N" carries the meaning of a boundary. There could equally be other sounds that carry the same meaning, like "Z" for instance. Spoken language is associated with situations, context. So you can have different sounds having the same meaning in different contexts.
Phonosemantics is vacuous if any sound can have any meaning. If you are making a claim that only some sounds have "boundary" as a meaning and not others, then this should be testable. You have not demonstrated a way to objectively test it, just your own intuition.
You have also not clarified the extent of influence of phonosemantics. Does it account for the shape of all words? Does it determine the entire meaning? Does it just "color" the meaning? Does it apply to all sounds? Does it always apply to those sounds?

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2. When I made my prediction, I said this: "I predict that most English words containing sound "N" will be linked in meaning to boundary. I have already analysed quite a few of them and all of them are related to boundary. And I am planning to analyse all of them. ". So I fully expect that there will be words that contain "N" in English language which are not related to boundary.
Ok. Good. This is a place to start. Some questions:
1. If even one word isn't about boundaries, then what are you claiming? Why is N sometimes related to boundaries and not always? What kind of theory would be a "sometimes" theory. (Imagine a "sometimes we have gravity" theory!)
[Note: I actually think, if anything, this is the right approach. But it's crucial that you work out the details and significance.]
2. How do you know? Humans are amazingly good at metaphors, so you just claiming "it's about boundaries" is basically meaningless. As a simple test, give me a word and tell me a concept it is "about". I'll make up a very convincing story. That isn't science or reliable, though. So, again, how can we rely on your analysis when it isn't something objectively testable?
Another way to consider this would be to wonder about exact opposites. The opposite of boundary might be "wide open space". What about "savannah", "open", "plain", "plane", "nebula", "navigate", etc.? If N can predict openness and boundaries, then what is it actually predicting?

A scientific hypothesis works like this:
Hypothesis ("H1"): There is some underlying reason that something will happen.
Null hypothesis ("H0"): There is no underlying reason, so the result will not be observed.

This is how falsification works: if you design a proper experiment, you will find that the null hypothesis is supported when the expected results do not occur. If the results do occur, then H1 may be correct. You can't prove H1 is correct, but you can show that it is incorrect-- if the data is inconsistent.

Now... how does this apply to your theory? Then actually test it. Does your hypothesis make predictions that are consistent with real results? Or do other things occur instead?

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3. Group languages are invented by families. Families expand to clans, tribes, nations, races and propagate the language. They also propagate genes. This is why genes and languages are linked.
Shouldn't we also be able to relate family recipes and language then? Also eye color. Also religions. Also location. Also political views.
Certainly all of these things are somewhat correlated-- families and communities are relevant to all of that, sometimes especially language. But none of it is particularly reliable.
If I eat a sandwich and you eat a salad, then do we speak the same language? (Or let's say Greek food and Japanese food respectively.) That's an absurd question to ask, right? So why would genetic evidence be much better?

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Different families can use different logic to link context to sound. Some of them will use "N" to represent boundary, some will use "Z" and some will use "K" of what ever other sound they though was logically linked to the concept of a boundary in the environment they lived when they developed the language. These families merged, languages merged. Not all words in English come from the same "family" language.
Ok! Very important. So: sound-meaning correspondences are entirely arbitrary. Languages vary, so "dog" in English is just coincidentally not like "Hund" in German or "perro" in Spanish.
What you're claiming is that sounds are treated as meaningful units in speech by users of those sounds. That's more reasonable, but also harder to prove, because it's very hard to imagine clear evidence that would falsify it. (You're saying "sometimes" rather than "always", for example.)

So then what is the point of these correspondences? Are you trying to track down individual families that they came from? There's a major time-depth issue in historical linguistics, and I'm certain you'll hit that.

Additionally, what about multiple generations? Are you claiming that following generations of the same family (or speech community) no longer question the form of words? You said families vary in these associations. How are they maintained then? That seems like a fatal flaw in the argument.
Further, why do languages vary at all? If they all (probably) go back to the same original speech community (maybe 100,000 years ago?) then why don't we retain whatever sounds they used? Either it is consistent over time or it is not. So, which?

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4. Words change phonetically through time. This is due to the the fact that what we say is dependent on what we hear and our ability to reproduce it.
5. The meaning of words changes through time.
Yes. They chance so much that any kind of analysis like this seems absurd, even if originally there were correspondences.

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...When people invented traffic light language, red meant stop, green meant go, yellow meant press on the break, prepare to stop, red light is coming. Stop and go are critical and still mean the same. Yellow now has many meanings, of which most common is press on the gas, speed up, red light is coming.
What is a "meaning"?
This may be an incredibly important point to discuss.
Semantics: the study of inherent meanings of words or sentences
Pragmatics: the study of the meaning of language in context

"It's cold in here."
Semantic meaning: It's cold.
Pragmatic meaning: Close the window.

Roughly, semantic meaning is inherent while pragmatic meaning is contextual.

Semantic meaning of yellow light: in a short time this will be red.
Potential pragmatic meanings of yellow light: slow down (if you have time); speed up (if you don't have time or are in a hurry); watch out! (if your breaks are failing); the cars will stop soon (if you're a pedestrian trying to cross); take the picture now! (if you're a photographer wanting pictures of yellow lights).

In the case of language, there is a huge difference between N sometimes being related to boundaries (well, of course it is, as in the word itself) and being predictably related to them.

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6. Words and sentences are linked to situations, context. This is how people learn language. And this is why you can not analyze the spoken language in isolation. You always need to link it to the context of which it is an integral part.
Incorrect. See above. There are two different (and equally valid) kinds of analysis.
To say that "N means boundary" you must establish some sort of conventional meaning for N. It's not just about context.

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I asked you this questions: "What do you think? Coincidences, Statistical noise, or are we approaching statistical impossibility of this all being coincidence? At what percentage of words with N sound, for which i can prove that they are linked to boundary, will you accept that there is an established correlation between sound N and meaning of boundary? "

I asked you to think about it, and tell me from your point of view when is the frequency of coincidences too high to be a coincidence. But you didn't understand what I said. Again. Do you understand my question now and can you give me the straight answer. 10% or 90%? Instead you say this:
Ridiculous. In answer to your question, then: no. You haven't shown that there is even a coincidence to begin with (no testable methodology), not to even consider whether it's statistically significant.

If you'd like to imagine something statistically significant, then you can use an alpha level of .05 and a real statistical test.

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The key here is "As far as you know". You don't know everything. Use the methodology you preach about and tell me what percentage of hits removes the possibility of coincidence and confirms deliberate action.
As far as I know pigs don't fly.
The fact that I don't know something doesn't mean you're right. It means nothing.

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You were asking me for a null hypothesis. This is it: I presume that all the "N" words that I found so far linked to the meaning of boundary in English are all coincidences.
Ok. So why can't they be coincidences?
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I believe that if I analyze all of the "N" words in English, and large majority of them is linked to the meaning of boundary then i have proven that this is not a coincidence.
How do you determine "is linked"? Do you mean that you can make up something then report it to us as a fact? You need a methodology.
For example, you could do a survey asking 100 people whether certain words are related to boundaries.
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To add to that If I find the same correlation in related European languages, then we certainly have a pattern which is deliberate rather then coincidental.
No, no, no! Don't use related languages to test for lack of coincidence. Use other languages like Swahili, Japanese and Navajo.

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You can read about null hypothesis here. You will see that how you prove it or disprove it is hotly debated.
You don't prove anything, ever. You can simply sometimes falsify a given hypothesis by showing that it is inconsistent with data.

Hypothesis: there is no dog in the room.
Data: there is a dog.
Conclusion: Hypothesis is falsified.
You can't ever be 100% certain there is no small dog hiding somewhere behind you, following you as you turn. You can continue running tests and making more specific hypotheses to determine that it is very likely (statistically significant) to be true, but you can't ever prove it.

What we end up doing is either:
a) falsifying a hypothesis
b) failing to falsify a hypothesis (thereby suggestively supporting the hypothesis)


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This again is self evident to someone who uses their eyes, ears and brain and who understands what language is. Language exists as part of a context describing information pattern or matrix. This is why "poetry" of the language is so important for it's understanding. Words relate to boundary if they are found in the same context with the meaning of boundary.
Absurd. That's the best you can do?
Science is not self-evident. If it was, then we wouldn't need to discuss it.
Plus, if it's self-evident, great. Why? Common sense is not acceptable (that's not science), so you surely must mean it is easy to reliable detect. How would you train a computer program to detect words related to boundaries?
Soup: the boundary between food and drink
Shoe: the boundary between feet and floor
Ice cream: the boundary between me and deliciousness
Side: a boundary of a figure
Edge: a boundary of a figure
Border: a boundary of a figure
Ridge: boundary within a figure
Seam: boundary on clothing
Cliff: boundary of mountain

Are all of those words related to boundary? Please, find a word that ISN'T related to boundaries...

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Satisfied?
Not at all. Your explanations would just be flipped if "edge" contained an N for example.

Your method appears to be:
1. Observe a possible pattern.
2. State that pattern, claim it is correct.
3. Force the data to fit that pattern, without a clear methodology.

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I know a lot about statistics.
Hahaha. Why haven't you used any statistical tests yet then? You've counted a few things, yes.

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As I said already, this is what I am trying to establish. Do you want to help?
No. I think it's pointless.
But feel free to show me some evidence that it isn't.

Why should I spend my time (or you spend yours) on this rather than absolutely any other activity? Your argument so far is completely unconvincing. Sometimes if you haven't found the supporting evidence you need, it just isn't there. Like WMDs in Iraq: they weren't there, no matter how long the government said they were while they were looking for them.

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You are maybe listening but you have problems understanding.
Are you telling me that there are two possibilities:
1. You're right, but I fail to understand.
2. You're right, and I understand.

What about the possibility where you're wrong? Haha. You're being silly about this. Stop with the whining and ad hominem stuff. Just move on to scientific discussion-- can you support your hypothesis? Great if so. If not, move on.

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If you ask me a question, and i answer, and then you ask me the same question again ignoring my answer, then i can at best conclude that you are not listening. But I am beginning to believe that you are incapable of understanding.
No problem. I'll stop asking questions. My conclusion: you're wrong. You haven't even come close to convincing me of anything. Good luck!

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As i thought, you are not listening, or thinking or reading what i write. Did you see this in one of my posts?
No. Your posts a very long and haven't ever had a clearly separate part.
(If I really did miss it, maybe I just had a busy day. Feel free to link to it.)

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And this just shows how little you understand what language is. It is not arbitrary because it is dependent on context. Do you know how kids learn to speak? Do you know what would happen to kids if you constantly changed the words used in the same context? Do you think they would ever learn how to speak. You can use arbitrary sound to create sound part of the context. But once it becomes part of the context, if you want to have a useful language, it stays stuck inside the context.
Silly. That's not what "arbitrary" means at all. Check the dictionary.

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Get all the words in English, separate the N words, separate the boundary N words, separate the boundary non N words.
How do you accomplish the last part? How do you separate them? Is it reliable? Can anyone other than you do it the same way?

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I am doing all this...
Actually you're not. Do some calculations.

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2. That theory must have a potential weakness, for a certain kind of hypothetical data. (There is more words which don't conform to the above then there are words which conform)
So... 55% is enough of a correlation? Why or why not?

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3. See if that data actually exists. (I am actively looking for the data that supports my theory. If I find some data that does not i will let you know. And you can let me know if you find some as well.)
The dictionary has an N section.
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Offline freknu

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #126 on: February 12, 2014, 11:32:12 PM »
http://www-01.sil.org/linguistics/wordlists/english/

Code: [Select]
grep "n" wordsEn.txt > n.txt
Knock yourself silly.

Offline MalFet

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #127 on: February 12, 2014, 11:40:04 PM »
MalFet

Here we go again. I will spell it this time:

The theory: There is a detectable correlation between sounds and meaning

Null hypothesis: All the "N" words that are related to boundary in English are all coincidences and there is no correlation between sound and meaning. The distribution of sounds in boundary related words is random

Null hypothesis proof:

Get all the words in English, separate the N words, separate the boundary related N words.
Get all non N words from English language, separate the boundary related non N words from the other non N words.
Compare percentages.

If percentage of N words related to boundary is less than the threshold percentage (?), we have random distribution and no correlation between sound and meaning.

If percentage of N words related to boundary is significantly more than the threshold percentage (?) go to stage two.

If percentage of non N words related to boundary is close to or bigger than the percentage of N words related to boundary we go to stage three.

Check if there is any other common sound in non N words related to boundary. Repeat the above steps.

You repeat this until you prove that none of the sounds that is found in clusters of words related to boundary has the majority in its group.

If you prove this the null hypothesis is validated and the theory is invalidated. If you can't prove this, if any of the perceived boundary carrying sounds appears to be in more words than you would expect if the distribution was random, then the theory is proven.

Or even simpler, get all the words related to boundary, group them by common sound, get percentage for each group with common sound. Compare with threshold percentage. If distribution is uniform, we have randomness. If we have peaks, it is deliberate. Each peak represents one sound which is strongly related to meaning of boundary.

The threshold percentage calculation:

number of all words related to boundary / number of letters = random distribution

What delta would you consider to be the proof that distribution is not random? If this is not testable what is?

So, in other words, all this is an experiment you'd like to do someday but haven't yet done? That's fine. I think people are confused because you appear to be presenting *findings*, when in reality what you're presenting is a project proposal.

Offline jkpate

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #128 on: February 13, 2014, 12:10:49 AM »
So, in other words, all this is an experiment you'd like to do someday but haven't yet done? That's fine. I think people are confused because you appear to be presenting *findings*, when in reality what you're presenting is a project proposal.

In fact, if you're willing to do a bit of programming, you could use nltk and its Wordnet API (see the Wordnet project's homepage for more information on Wordnet) to enumerate a large sample of words in English along with various Wordnet-based distances from the entry for "boundary," and see to what extent the probability a word has an "n" in it correlates with its distance from "boundary" in the synset graph (probably using a mixed logit regression that predicts the presence or absence of "n" in word types on the basis of their distance from "boundary"). If you're concerned about the difference between spelling and pronunciation, you could use a pronunciation dictionary like cmudict or extract a dictionary with pronunciation variants weighted by frequency from a corpus with close phonetic transcription like the Buckeye corpus. And there are similar resources for considering languages other than English.

Again, I doubt you'll find the correlation you want, but my point is that it is possible to address this question in a reasonably serious way using freely available resources: you don't even have to distribute surveys! I and the other commenters here don't have time to walk you through the python coding, but I think we'd be happy to look at graphs of real data and provide feedback (and maybe some assistance, especially if the ad-hominems stop) on the analysis.
« Last Edit: February 13, 2014, 12:15:58 AM by jkpate »
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Offline MalFet

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #129 on: February 13, 2014, 12:38:18 AM »
"Clustering" is pretty well documented as a phenomenon. The word-initial gl- node is probably the most widely described in English: glisten, glimmer, glint, gleam, etc.

Jespersen famously studied all this years and years ago. I'm away from my library at the moment, but he's often quoted as saying something along the lines of "Sound symbolism makes some words more likely to survive than others."

There's little doubt that sounds have effective properties for speakers, and that speakers in turn respond to these properties in ways that influence language change. However, this is often a very lateral kind of process. We can't just let the data wash over ourselves, sniffing for things that *feel* significant. That is, as jkpate points out, datamining, and the thing about datamining is that you'll always find a positive result if you look long enough. This is why real quantitative typology always begins by measuring the baseline of the null hypothesis.

The entire field of quantitative typology

Offline freknu

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #130 on: February 13, 2014, 12:45:48 AM »
"Clustering" is pretty well documented as a phenomenon. The word-initial gl- node is probably the most widely described in English: glisten, glimmer, glint, gleam, etc.

Jespersen famously studied all this years and years ago. I'm away from my library at the moment, but he's often quoted as saying something along the lines of "Sound symbolism makes some words more likely to survive than others."

The following is a short description of a similar phenomenon in Swedish: Phonesthemes in Swedish.

"Phonesthemes" is not a word I'm familiar with, but I would guess it has something to do with thematic distribution of phones or something?
« Last Edit: February 13, 2014, 12:56:51 AM by freknu »

Offline Daniel

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #131 on: February 13, 2014, 12:51:32 AM »
Phonesthemes = blend of phone+aesthetic+[-eme]?
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Offline freknu

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #132 on: February 13, 2014, 12:56:31 AM »
Phonesthemes = blend of phone+aesthetic+[-eme]?

That would actually be an excellent description, even if it wasn't the real etymology. Aesthetic, that's the really important word here.

Not so much phonosemantics as in distinct contrastive meaning for individual sounds, but phonaesthetics as in arbitrary sounds trending towards related aesthetic meanings.

Brilliant!

(EDIT)

Even as I work on my orthography I've come to use "aesthetics" to describe why some things are written as they are, so now I have two new words: phonaesthetics and orthoaesthetics :D
« Last Edit: February 13, 2014, 12:59:18 AM by freknu »

Offline jkpate

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #133 on: February 13, 2014, 01:03:28 AM »
orthoaesthetics

Now that's an orthoaesthetically pleasing vowel cluster.
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Offline Daniel

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Re: The language of old Europe
« Reply #134 on: February 13, 2014, 01:04:10 AM »
Right. "Gl" works really well for those words because it feels right. But it doesn't determine the meaning or have any necessary correspondence.

"Shine" is just as good as "glimmer", but "gl" sounds right there, by chance. Likewise, "glue" and some other words may have nothing to do with that meaning and they aren't problematic.

There has been quite a bit of work on finding the right names for products. I believe "Nike" was the result of a think tank of sorts coming up with the most impressive name for shoes. There's probably quite a bit more money going into that industry.
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