Linguist Forum

Specializations => Typology and Descriptive Linguistics => Topic started by: zaba on March 09, 2014, 10:44:55 PM

Title: inflectional vs derivational verb pluralizer
Post by: zaba on March 09, 2014, 10:44:55 PM
So check this sentence out:

make.ayahuasca-PL-AGENTIVE.NOMINALIZATION-VERBALIZATION-3SG-PAST.TENSE
'they (ancestors) made ayahuasca (repeatedly)'

The thing is, the AGENTIVE.NOMINALIZATION+VERBALIZATION sequence expresses a repeated activity, so the sentence literally means 'they were ayahuasca makers'.

Question has to do with the verbal PLURAL marker. This seems to be inflection -- but the nominalisation that occurs right after makes me doubt that analysis. In fact, the plural is the only inflectional form that can be directly nominalised like that.

Does that make you as nervous as it does me?