Author Topic: inflectional vs derivational verb pluralizer  (Read 1558 times)

Offline zaba

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inflectional vs derivational verb pluralizer
« on: March 09, 2014, 10:44:55 PM »
So check this sentence out:

make.ayahuasca-PL-AGENTIVE.NOMINALIZATION-VERBALIZATION-3SG-PAST.TENSE
'they (ancestors) made ayahuasca (repeatedly)'

The thing is, the AGENTIVE.NOMINALIZATION+VERBALIZATION sequence expresses a repeated activity, so the sentence literally means 'they were ayahuasca makers'.

Question has to do with the verbal PLURAL marker. This seems to be inflection -- but the nominalisation that occurs right after makes me doubt that analysis. In fact, the plural is the only inflectional form that can be directly nominalised like that.

Does that make you as nervous as it does me?