I'm glad my response was helpful.
That's what definite literally means-- previously introduced (defined) in the discourse, right?
. Not being a linguist and only being exposed to a small subset of the material I would disagree with this.
I was referring to the etymology of the term:
definite means
defined, as in established or known from the discourse context. Of course now it's just a technical term not necessarily always meaning (only?) that.
Definiteness through bridging relations, situational context etc would indicate that previous discourse mention or even activation need not be present for something to be definite. Russell's theory of uniqueness of entity has come under a fair bit of flack by relevance theorists. Powell is an interesting read on this. Happy to modify my views though if you have more thoughts?
There are (at least) two types of definiteness that interact, and can't necessarily be substituted or explained by the other.
1. Established in context (literally "defined"): "I bought a boat. ... then the boat sank."
2. Specificity/uniqueness: "the book on the table", suggesting either there is only one, or it is the obvious one.
The first may sometimes have a sort of anaphoric ('referring back', as in pronouns) sense.
[Switch-Reference]
Urmmmmm, I am well and truly out of my depth here, but will look this up.
The term "Switch-Reference" is used to refer to when there is a
change in subject from one clause to the same, in contrast to maintaining the same subject:
1. He arrived home. He watched a movie. SAME SUBJECT
2. He arrived home. She watched a movie. DIFFERENT SUBJECT
Different languages have different ways of expressing this.
In some languages, there are different endings on the verbs indicating whether the subject of a following clause is the same or different:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Switch-referenceBut that's getting away from the main point I wanted to make:
In languages where subjects are optional (these are called "pro-drop languages" by linguists, sort of an odd term, meaning "pronoun-dropping"), then:
1. When many verbs have the same subject, it is normal to omit repeated pronouns.
2. When pronouns are used, very often they refer to new (different) subjects.
So this means that in general, the use of pronouns is associated with change of reference in the discourse.
Note that this is a somewhat similar situation to what you describe for Greek, but exactly the opposite tendency: pronouns tend to disappear in repeated usage, while you find repeated usage of "ho" when the same referent is mentioned repeatedly.
For the relevant sense related to the use of pronouns, see this reference:
Cameron, Richard. 1995. The scope and limits of switch reference as a constraint on pronominal subject expression. Hispanic LinguisLcs 6/7. 1–27.
And look up various papers citing that one (it's probably the most cited article, though there are many more if you want to read them).
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Good luck with your research. The proposal sounds interesting, especially investigating those ideas experimentally.
The potential weakness in the argument regarding Relevance Theory, and not necessarily specific to your work, is that it seems equally plausible to come up with the opposite hypothesis for similar reasons also motivated by relevance. This is why I referred to omission of pronouns in same subject contexts above.
Roughly, if the speaker and hearer already know about the subject, then why would we need to reinforce it?
You say the repeated usage somehow highlights its salience, and I can see that. But wouldn't this mean that you could get a contrast between repeated use of salient subjects, versus repeated use of unimportant subjects? Or, if not that, then try to find a way to distinguish these hypotheses.
The experimental results may be helpful in this, depending on how you design the experiment!