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Historical Linguistics / Characters for Khmer Vowels
« Last post by kiragecko on December 09, 2017, 08:00:27 PM »
I mostly focus on the Angkorian period, and I'm confused with how Angkorian vowels line up with modern ones. When the Middle Khmer sound shift happened, 'u' and 'o' seem to have been conflated into one symbol. Did the original 'u' symbol just disappear? I can't find any modern vowels that look similar.
It just seems weird to drop a vowel and then make a bunch of new ones, instead of reusing the old vowel for something else.
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Outside of the box / Re: The "English Code"
« Last post by FlyingRedSportscar on December 09, 2017, 01:08:07 PM »
Website is currently down.  Doing some maintenance.  Will post again when it comes back online.
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Linguist's Lounge / Re: Linguistic term
« Last post by panini on December 05, 2017, 07:56:32 PM »
You might be talking of chiasmus, though that's not really a linguistic term.
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Linguist's Lounge / Linguistic term
« Last post by Badgerwatch on December 05, 2017, 11:32:31 AM »
Hi all, I wonder if anybody could help. I cannot remember the linguistic term for the technique of reversing the phrase.
Example: one for all and all for one.

Does anyone know what it is called?
Thanks.
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Phonetics and Phonology / Re: Glottal vs glottalized variants of (t)
« Last post by dalila on December 05, 2017, 04:26:24 AM »
I found this in the paper, so you were right  ;D
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Phonetics and Phonology / Re: Glottal vs glottalized variants of (t)
« Last post by Daniel on December 02, 2017, 12:31:52 PM »
Usage may vary, but typically when contrasted in phonetics the type "glottal" (or "palatal", "labial", etc.) refers to the main articulation, versus the modifier type "glottalized" (or "palatalized", "labialized", etc.) referring to a modification and/or secondary articulation. (Another possibility, but probably not what is going on here is that "glottal" refers to something phonemic, or at least an "important" allophone, while "glottalized" refers to some (minor?) phonetic variant. That usage might be more common for "palatal[ized]" though. And finally, these terms may also be used diachronically to refer to, e.g., palatalization as a process in the development of later palatal sounds, but that also doesn't seem to be what's going on here.)

In this case, my guess would be that the "glottal T" is really just a glottal stop, but that the "glottalized T" is an alveolar articulation [t] plus glottal secondary articulation (e.g., ejective or similar). But it's hard to be sure exactly what they mean because usage of these terms does vary.

All I can be relatively confident about is that "glottal" describes a more complete/basic/general property of a sound whereas "glottalized" describes a modification/variant/secondary articulation of another sound. And I can only be confident about that because they use the terms contrastively-- other authors who do not use both in contrast to one another might actually use either term to refer to either.

In short, read usage like that very carefully and try to understand what they mean from context. You're right to ask this question, and if you have difficulty understanding it in the original source you might even try to contact the authors to clarify it, because these terms are not always used consistently. You might also get a hint from related research (do they cite another author who uses these terms) in traditional usage for that particular sub-field (or language area).
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Phonetics and Phonology / Glottal vs glottalized variants of (t)
« Last post by dalila on December 02, 2017, 03:06:16 AM »
Hello everyone, I was writing my dissertation on the glottal stop and I found this in a paper: "There is a slight tendency for young females to favour glottal (as opposed to glottalized) variants of (t)".
So my question is : what is the difference between the terms glottal and glottalized?
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If this is fictional, then it seems interesting and creative. Fiction should still resemble reality, though, to some extent, so make sure it works out in that sense. But if the goal is to create a language of beings that seem somewhat disconnected from our reality or perhaps do not categorize the natural world like we do, then that might work out well. If these beings are god-like, though, I would wonder why their language appears less direct/specific than ours, or why they would need to be efficient if they are omniscient/omnipotent, etc. But since we're moving away from the reality of human language, my objections are indeed less relevant.

I think you'll like the dialects of the other language I've made, Commonspeak, a lot more since it is a far more human language (used by fictional humans).

Even then, the other dialects of Truespeak are simpler and more straightforward (as I've already said), so I'm curious to see what you have to say on them once I make the posts regarding them. (There's also a hybrid which crosses between the many dialects, but I'll get to that one later).

As for why a God-like being would need an efficient language, the answer is that Bire appreciates beauty, and sees efficiency as beautiful. I mean, it also makes more sense to make an efficient language than an inefficient one.

Thanks as always.
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Linguist's Lounge / Re: So I've created a very functional language with only 32 words,
« Last post by Daniel on November 27, 2017, 05:08:51 AM »
If this is fictional, then it seems interesting and creative. Fiction should still resemble reality, though, to some extent, so make sure it works out in that sense. But if the goal is to create a language of beings that seem somewhat disconnected from our reality or perhaps do not categorize the natural world like we do, then that might work out well. If these beings are god-like, though, I would wonder why their language appears less direct/specific than ours, or why they would need to be efficient if they are omniscient/omnipotent, etc. But since we're moving away from the reality of human language, my objections are indeed less relevant.
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