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Are you interested in linguistic correlates of self esteem for the purpose of linguistic research?

Or are you looking for a practical way to measure self esteem?

These are often available for free online. They sometimes take relatively extensive testing (maybe an hour or two?) and are done individually, but they are used by psychologists and medical doctors to evaluate certain outcomes or conditions, and are widely tested and standardized  That approach, or something like it, will be much more reliable and practical than looking for potential linguistic correlates of self esteem.

Yes, I am actually looking for how linguistics correlates with self-esteem particularly in a classroom setting. I was interested in the impact of teacher's verbal communication on students self-esteem since I noticed such occurrence when teaching myself.
So I want to evaluate teachers speech in a classroom and its effects on students to be a bit more exact. I know about the self-esteem measure developed by Marshall Rosenberg for children which again is purely a psychology based questionnaire.
I was wondering if this type of research was plausible, I want to combine the two areas together to show their importance.
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Are you interested in linguistic correlates of self esteem for the purpose of linguistic research?

Or are you looking for a practical way to measure self esteem?

There may be linguistic factors, but I would suggest looking at psychology research instead of linguistics narrowly for a practical answer. The (United States) NIH (National Institute of Health) has various surveys/packages designed to measure development, behavior and cognitive/psychological status for things like language development, depression, and so forth. These are often available for free online. They sometimes take relatively extensive testing (maybe an hour or two?) and are done individually, but they are used by psychologists and medical doctors to evaluate certain outcomes or conditions, and are widely tested and standardized (at least within the US context). That approach, or something like it, will be much more reliable and practical than looking for potential linguistic correlates of self esteem. They are also very often used for academic research too, not just practical applications. I don't know if there is a specific test battery designed for self esteem (I've only encountered these in passing for my own research, such as measuring memory abilities), but you probably can get some information that way, or at least think about how to design your own materials.
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Hello, I was wondering if anyone had an idea about a linguistic tool that can help with measuring self-esteem in children. I also am interested to know if there is any linguistic measure developed to evaluate teachers speech in classrooms.

I hope someone can assist as I have been looking around and am not able to find much..
Thanks in Advance
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Thanks again Daniel, useful clarifications and some good directions for me to look. I also just saw the link to your thesis - I will download that later and get some time to read through.
I won't be doing any experimentation myself, far too incompetent and under-educated for that! I am just hoping to get a view of experiments done in other languages that i can then try to apply any consistent principles back to Greek. Studies on modern Greek obviously, where I can find them, would be a good place to start!
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Note that this is a somewhat similar situation to what you describe for Greek, but exactly the opposite tendency: pronouns tend to disappear in repeated usage, while you find repeated usage of "ho" when the same referent is mentioned repeatedly.
There is the option to use pronouns also in these constructions, the pronominal use of the article is almost a short hand. I have deliberately avoided mentioning them below trying to avoid complicating things even more. Perhaps I will need to increase my scope to look at pronoun use... in attempting to focus on something really small narrowly defined, as normal I seem to be multiplying stuff I need to read!

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The potential weakness in the argument regarding Relevance Theory, and not necessarily specific to your work, is that it seems equally plausible to come up with the opposite hypothesis for similar reasons also motivated by relevance. This is why I referred to omission of pronouns in same subject contexts above.

Roughly, if the speaker and hearer already know about the subject, then why would we need to reinforce it?
My thoughts on reinforcing the subject when it is already known by speaker and hearer are pretty ill-thought through but would basically be as follows. In some reported dialogues, where there is a lot of switching between participants, surely there comes a time that anchoring the current discourse back to a named referent can help the comprehension. If half a page of text contains 10 switches between short interactions, then using the name of the current speaker might be helpful even if not really flagging the material as important. I would want to look into the possibility that some instances considered as marked reference in some grammars may just be the author needing to help the audience keep track of who is speaking. As I said - not carefully thought through, just something nagging at the back of my mind.

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You say the repeated usage somehow highlights its salience, and I can see that. But wouldn't this mean that you could get a contrast between repeated use of salient subjects, versus repeated use of unimportant subjects? Or, if not that, then try to find a way to distinguish these hypotheses
I will have to think about this. Thanks for pointing it out.

Thanks again

Matt
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Semantics and Pragmatics / gauge - what does it mean in this sentence?
« Last post by ian-st on June 17, 2018, 08:39:40 AM »
In the The Metaphysical Touch by Sylvia Brownrigg the word gauge is used in a way I cannot find in any dictionary.
"She was greeted at the door by a woman with a comfortable, weathered face: a face riven by warmth and comedy and the deep gauge of alcohol"
Is it being used in the sense of "a large measure of alcohol"? It is an attractive use of the word but I'm not sure it is correct.
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Semantics and Pragmatics / Re: in the 7th period / in 7th period?
« Last post by Daniel on June 16, 2018, 08:19:32 PM »
Even simpler: it's the same difference between "the math class" and "math class". You'd say "What did you do in math class" only when that's a name for an established class someone is taking, assumed to be the only one, so you don't need to say "the" before it.

By the way, that only applies at school (or equivalent institutions). In other contexts you'd need "the", such as "In the 6th period, the pendulum swung at the same rate as the 1st period."
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Semantics and Pragmatics / Re: in the 7th period / in 7th period?
« Last post by Natalia on June 16, 2018, 01:44:15 PM »
Thank you.
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Semantics and Pragmatics / Re: in the 7th period / in 7th period?
« Last post by Daniel on June 16, 2018, 11:50:04 AM »
Either one. "6th period" is a name, so you can refer to it as just that, and it would be the most natural way to phrase it (at least to my American ears). But "in the 6th period" is a more formal way of expressing it if you are describing how your schedule works, for example, explaining how the time is divided during the day. So you would skip "the" with classmates, but to explain to an outsider unfamiliar with your school's typical schedule, you might say "in the...", but even then it wouldn't be required.
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Semantics and Pragmatics / in the 7th period / in 7th period?
« Last post by Natalia on June 16, 2018, 11:13:51 AM »
Hello.
When we are talking about the timing of the school day, should I say, e.g.

1. I have biology in the 6th period.
or
2. I have biology in 6th period.

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I'm glad my response was helpful.

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That's what definite literally means-- previously introduced (defined) in the discourse, right?

. Not being a linguist and only being exposed to a small subset of the material I would disagree with this.
I was referring to the etymology of the term: definite means defined, as in established or known from the discourse context. Of course now it's just a technical term not necessarily always meaning (only?) that.

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Definiteness through bridging relations, situational context etc would indicate that previous discourse mention or even activation need not be present for something to be definite. Russell's theory of uniqueness of entity has come under a fair bit of flack by relevance theorists. Powell is an interesting read on this. Happy to modify my views though if you have more thoughts?
There are (at least) two types of definiteness that interact, and can't necessarily be substituted or explained by the other.
1. Established in context (literally "defined"): "I bought a boat. ... then the boat sank."
2. Specificity/uniqueness: "the book on the table", suggesting either there is only one, or it is the obvious one.
The first may sometimes have a sort of anaphoric ('referring back', as in pronouns) sense.

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[Switch-Reference]
Urmmmmm, I am well and truly out of my depth here, but will look this up.
The term "Switch-Reference" is used to refer to when there is a change in subject from one clause to the same, in contrast to maintaining the same subject:
1. He arrived home. He watched a movie. SAME SUBJECT
2. He arrived home. She watched a movie. DIFFERENT SUBJECT

Different languages have different ways of expressing this.

In some languages, there are different endings on the verbs indicating whether the subject of a following clause is the same or different:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Switch-reference


But that's getting away from the main point I wanted to make:

In languages where subjects are optional (these are called "pro-drop languages" by linguists, sort of an odd term, meaning "pronoun-dropping"), then:
1. When many verbs have the same subject, it is normal to omit repeated pronouns.
2. When pronouns are used, very often they refer to new (different) subjects.
So this means that in general, the use of pronouns is associated with change of reference in the discourse.

Note that this is a somewhat similar situation to what you describe for Greek, but exactly the opposite tendency: pronouns tend to disappear in repeated usage, while you find repeated usage of "ho" when the same referent is mentioned repeatedly.

For the relevant sense related to the use of pronouns, see this reference:
Cameron, Richard. 1995. The scope and limits of switch reference as a constraint on pronominal subject expression. Hispanic LinguisLcs 6/7. 1–27.
And look up various papers citing that one (it's probably the most cited article, though there are many more if you want to read them).

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Good luck with your research. The proposal sounds interesting, especially investigating those ideas experimentally.

The potential weakness in the argument regarding Relevance Theory, and not necessarily specific to your work, is that it seems equally plausible to come up with the opposite hypothesis for similar reasons also motivated by relevance. This is why I referred to omission of pronouns in same subject contexts above.

Roughly, if the speaker and hearer already know about the subject, then why would we need to reinforce it?

You say the repeated usage somehow highlights its salience, and I can see that. But wouldn't this mean that you could get a contrast between repeated use of salient subjects, versus repeated use of unimportant subjects? Or, if not that, then try to find a way to distinguish these hypotheses.

The experimental results may be helpful in this, depending on how you design the experiment!
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