Hi,
Participles are verbal adjectives (adjectives which come/are made of/ from verbs).
Past participles in "English". I suppose it is no big deal for anyone to figure out when it is past active and when it is past passive participle.
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"-ing (2)
suffix used to form the present participles of verbs ... "
" ... The vowel weakened in late Old English and the spelling with -g began 13c.-14c. among Anglo-Norman scribes who naturally confused it with -ing (1)."
https://www.etymonline.com/search?q=-ingThe question is if the suffix is used for the present active or the present passive participle.
Is there present passive participle anyway in English?
Let's see what's in "Latin":
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8OcJXc_jGrQIs there present passive participles in Russian? - Yes.
In the "logic" of ("Indo-European") "Languages" one has to have
past active and passive,
present active and passive and
future active and passive participles (
past,
present,
future as
exact moments in
1d Time).
or (in other words)
According to any
exact moment of/in Time (1d:
now; then:
past;
future) participles (active and passive) are: past, present, future. In a "Simple sentence" (when it is needed) one has two verbs - the 2nd is
RELATIVE to the 1st (which "has/takes" the exact moment in 1d Time). In 1d one has 3 possibilities: before, "during", after. Participle is the 2nd verb and it takes form of :
* adjective - after the 1st verb "be". One is ACCUSTOMED in "Simple sentence" after the
INTRANSITIVE verb "be" (is') to PUT/PLACE second Quality(adjective). "Apple is' red'."/"He is' gone' (past active participle) (dead')." {after
transitive "be" (is'') one puts NOUN (Man is'' animal.)}
* adjective before missing noun (which is always meant) and this way adjective becomes a "noun"(or its "name"). This happens after "has" as the 1st verb (after "have" one has a noun or its "name" (the possessed)).
/tenses' formulae could have been way, way, ... complicated(exact) but one is a simple creature and that is why one uses the very simplest of the possible tenses' formulae/
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Let's say it once more ...:
* according to a TRANSITIVE verb ("directed graph") one has 1st (doer) and 2nd (sufferer).
* (but) let's see: "Someone_1 give present (to) Someone_2 / Someone_1 give Someone_2 present."
Now we have: doer, sufferer (in Connection) and direction (in another Connection (the 1st 3 (doer, sufferer, connection) with direction). So we have to have 3 participles:
active,
passive,
directive. And 3 "pieces" (exact moments) of Time.
...===
The term "copula verb" means nothing.
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There are holes in "logic" of any "language". What holes in "English logic" from the "English" point of view are there? English orthography is a "small change", it is not a problem at all.
Have a nice day.