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Why is most Indo-European and Afroasiatic anguage distinguish male noun and fema


Arabic, Icelandic, Russian, French, german, Spanish Language distinguish male noun and female noun
And Russian and Icelandic language distinguish adjective and verb from male and female
Why is most Indo-European and Afroasiatic language distinguish male noun and female noun?

One answer is "because they can" (and likewise, Chinese, Korean and Quechua don't have sex-gender "because they can"). In the case of Afroasiatic, this distinction is sufficiently ancient that you can only say "that's how they've always done it", whereas in Indo-European there is a good case to be made that originally there was a simpler animate / inanimate distinction that morphed into a sex-influenced system. Of course you can always wonder why a language would grammatically distinguish animate vs. inanimate, or long thin things vs. artifacts, so at some point the answer has to be "because it is so".


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