Not really. At least "bruise" and "cruise" show the /i/ in the source:
bruise < Norm. bruiser < Gaul. *brus-
cruise < Dut. kruisen, kruis < Lat. crux
I don't know about OEn/MEn, but would it have been orthographical even back then, or would the /i/ have been pronounced?
(EDIT)
I would guess that it's purely orthographical, for some reason it just ended being spelled like that, perhaps drawing from similarly spelled words. The pronunciation actually follows the rest of the Germanic languages and shows no evidence for why it would need an /i/.