Linguist Forum
Specializations => Phonetics and Phonology => Topic started by: anab28 on November 12, 2014, 09:24:56 PM
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Hello, I'm new to all this!
Was just wondering if anyone could tell me how to write the word "hungover" in IPA? Hungover as in: "Man I drank waaaay too much last night and now I am too hungover to translate any English to IPA by myself"
Thanks!
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Why don't you guess so we can help, rather than doing it for you?
This is a useful site:
http://westonruter.github.io/ipa-chart/keyboard/
(Also, British or American? Would you pronounce the final -r in that?)
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Ok!
British, so no r at the end. So far thinking it's either, hʌŋoʊvə or həŋoʊvə but not totally clear on difference between ʌ and ə. Something to do with the emphasis being on the "o" of over? maybe?
Thanks!
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difference between ʌ and ə
It's subtle.
One rule for this is that you use ʌ in stressed syllables and ə in unstressed syllables. So here it would be ə, because the word is hungóver. But since it's a compound you can also stress that first syllable, so maybe I'd go with /hʌŋoʊvə/ in this case.
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The IPA transcription of the "British English" o-diphthong is usually [əʊ], I believe. So I would transcribe it either [hʌŋəʊvə] (for RP) or [hʌŋoʊvəɹ] (in GA).
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The IPA transcription of the "British English" o-diphthong is usually [əʊ], I believe. So I would transcribe it either [hʌŋəʊvə] (for RP) or [hʌŋoʊvəɹ] (in GA).
This is what the books will tell you, but it's actually very, very uncommon. What is touted as official British English is according to RP and only a tiny proportion of the population speak that. For every o-diphthong pronounced as [əʊ] there will be hundreds who say [oʊ]. I'm not saying what you said is wrong (quite the contrary) but for the "full picture" kind of understanding, this is an important point. The quickest way for me to not want to be friends with someone is to hear them use [əʊ] in a serious way.
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...[oʊ]...
Really? That sounds American to me (being American). I'd completely believe that it isn't fully [əʊ], but I'd be surprised if it is fully [oʊ] though.
Is the sampling based on:
1) Movies/television
2) Linguistics-affiliated academics (conferences, etc.)
extremely disproportionate to the statistics you're giving?
I may very well be wrong, but I feel like I'd be surprised in the UK, if I were to live there, if I almost always heard [oʊ].