Linguist Forum

Specializations => Morphosyntax => Topic started by: nima_persia on April 28, 2015, 01:27:06 AM

Title: mislead
Post by: nima_persia on April 28, 2015, 01:27:06 AM

Considering the fact that the verb mislead is derived from lead, I am wondering what kind of morpheme is it? that is, taking into account although the part of speech of lead has not changed. in fact, its meaning has changed. So, which of the following could be considered as the related special term?

 1. a derivational morpheme

 2. an inflectional morpheme


Thank in advance

Title: Re: mislead
Post by: freknu on April 28, 2015, 07:03:16 AM

Do you understand the difference between derivation and inflection?

Title: Re: mislead
Post by: jkpate on April 28, 2015, 01:41:02 PM

Just to elaborate on what freknu said, this looks like it might be a homework problem and this forum has a policy against directly answering homework problems. Can talk us through your understanding of what makes a morpheme inflectional or derivational?