Specializations > Historical Linguistics
How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?
Unquestionably, "knowing" isn't the same concept as "saying". Thus how did 'that is to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say; namely'?
Yes, that makes sense, and there are other parallels in English like "let it be known".
For me, a nonnative English speaker, the relation between Slovenian/Slovak/Russian videt’ and to wit/witness appeared to be a big surprise. So, I have decided to check another word that seems pretty old to me – gl’adEt’ (to look at). Well, now I know where Irish glen in Glenlivet, Glenfiddich and Glenmorangie comes from. But I will need to buy a bottle of each one to double check my speculations on why the Internet claims these two (gl’adet’ and glenn) are related. Linguistics turns to be more and more pleasant…
 Message IndexGo to full version