Linguist Forum

Specializations => Historical Linguistics => Topic started by: scherzo on November 13, 2021, 12:07:28 AM

Title: How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?
Post by: scherzo on November 13, 2021, 12:07:28 AM
Unquestionably, "knowing" isn't the same concept as "saying". Thus how did 'that is to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say; namely (https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/to_wit#Etymology)'?

(https://i.imgur.com/63IYZY1.jpg)
Title: Re: How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?
Post by: Daniel on November 13, 2021, 10:46:06 AM
Yes, that makes sense, and there are other parallels in English like "let it be known".
Title: Re: How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?
Post by: Rock100 on November 15, 2021, 02:47:27 PM
For me, a nonnative English speaker, the relation between Slovenian/Slovak/Russian videt’ and to wit/witness appeared to be a big surprise. So, I have decided to check another word that seems pretty old to me – gl’adEt’ (to look at). Well, now I know where Irish glen in Glenlivet, Glenfiddich and Glenmorangie comes from. But I will need to buy a bottle of each one to double check my speculations on why the Internet claims these two (gl’adet’ and glenn) are related. Linguistics turns to be more and more pleasant…