Author Topic: How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?  (Read 277 times)

Offline scherzo

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How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?
« on: November 13, 2021, 12:07:28 AM »
Unquestionably, "knowing" isn't the same concept as "saying". Thus how did 'that is to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say; namely'?


Offline Daniel

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Re: How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?
« Reply #1 on: November 13, 2021, 10:46:06 AM »
Yes, that makes sense, and there are other parallels in English like "let it be known".
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Offline Rock100

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Re: How did 'to wit' shift to denote 'that is to say'?
« Reply #2 on: November 15, 2021, 02:47:27 PM »
For me, a nonnative English speaker, the relation between Slovenian/Slovak/Russian videt’ and to wit/witness appeared to be a big surprise. So, I have decided to check another word that seems pretty old to me – gl’adEt’ (to look at). Well, now I know where Irish glen in Glenlivet, Glenfiddich and Glenmorangie comes from. But I will need to buy a bottle of each one to double check my speculations on why the Internet claims these two (gl’adet’ and glenn) are related. Linguistics turns to be more and more pleasant…